Almost all over the world, the excess deaths match perfectly with the lockdown inception and the Covid hospital/nursing home protocols. If one believes (like I do) that this virus was spreading since at least September 2019, why all the sudden excess deaths starting in late March 2020 and April 2020? Why didn't we have different spikes in deaths in different countries and states earlier? So much of what we've been told by officials doesn't make sense.
We literally sped up the curve by infecting all the at-risk at once so we could 'save hospital space', but in the 3 years since, we have actually lost hospital capacity (at least here in WA).
You answered your own question and it had nothing to do with "the virus spreading" in 2019.
None of these excess deaths were caused by "Covid" (SARSCoV-2) or any anomalous pathogen.
ALL of these excess deaths were caused by what you mentioned in your first sentence- the hospital protocols and the nursing home protocols.
If you have looked at the entirety of the database on excess mortality from 2019 to date it is crystal clear what happened.
That only 15 states were impacted in March/April 2020 and all 15 of those states enacted the same protocols at the same time clearly defines what happened. That the age stratification (beyond normal life expectancy) and baseline health measures (extremely poor) were the same further illustrates there was no viral pathogen of concern whatsoever- it all came down to policies- these people were killed.
Oct 25, 2022·edited Oct 25, 2022Liked by Joel Smalley
Many harmful activities ceased. Walking across busy intersections, driving, performing dangerous jobs, playing in playgrounds...
Basically, all the things that make life worth living carry a risk of killing us. I prefer to take those risks every day without government intervention, because...I want to look back on a life so well-lived it was worth a number of risks.
Indeed. Remembering that fear, isolation and loneliness are incredibly detrimental to the human nervous system. As is the divide and rule programme. So many questions unanswered and avoided and so many deaths and increase in chronic and co-morbid dis-ease as a result of this aspect of the lockdowns, masking and distancing.
Yes true. But these must have ceased in other cities too. I bet something was happening in the hospitals or aged care homes only in London, and it stopped in that April week. Someone will know.
Oct 25, 2022·edited Oct 26, 2022Liked by Joel Smalley
I believe you are asking what stopped that was causing a weird spike in mortality--meaning something started that caused it in the first place....What could it be? I remember reading an article over a year ago about how the "spread" of covid around the world made no sense based on historical data of viruses. Why NY would have been ravaged while we were still completely unaffected in CA for several more months was always a question for me. Italy supposedly got hit horribly while its neighbors fared ok. London as well. Perhaps it was the govt in those places willing to play along and it was all perception? Otherwise, it sounds like something was directed in those places.
NY sped up their curve by infecting all the at-risk at once. And CA was dealing with covid at that time, too, as antibody testing showed. The thing is -- if you don't overreact to covid, you don't even notice it.
There was still plenty of sinister shit going down. Remember that in NYC spring 2020 you didn't even need a positive test to get marked as covid -- only covid symptoms. But even when tests were restricted to the sickest people WITH covid symptoms, only 25% or so were actually coming back positive.
I'll repeat that -- 75% of the people who were sick WITH COVID SYMPTOMS didn't actually have covid.
Yet the government waived all the normal rules and allowed them to count anybody with symptoms as a covid death -- even knowing that 3/4 of them probably don't even have covid to begin with.
On Tuesday, the city decided to add people who never tested positive but are presumed to have died from the virus, helping to raise the death toll by 3,700 in one day, according to The New York Times.
“Freddi Goldstein, press secretary to Mayor Bill de Blasio, said Tuesday that the data include at-home deaths of people suspected of having Covid-19, the disease caused by the coronavirus,” Bloomberg reported.
“That judgment is based on reported symptoms including cough, fever and shortness of breath,” the outlet added.
I'm not an expert in UK geography or population or anything, but I would imagine that's exactly where we would expect such a freakout. I imagine London as Britain's New York. Compared to the rest of the country, I would imagine that a massive number of 'at-risk' were in nursing homes in or around London.
This is due to the indiscriminate use of midazolam to murder elders to boost covid death numbers. There entire stockpile was used and not at the recommended dosages.
Could be. DNRs too. Or, it could be as simple as societal support networks returning to normal. The Google mobility data shows a return to normal levels much more rapidly than the "measures" allowed.
Yes, I should have given this proper consideration. There are more than enough additional COVID deaths to account for the drop off in non-COVID excess, even though the disorderly pattern is not matched. I guess it is a combination of excess and non-excess deaths at a time when they really started over attributing COVID?
Yes, I think so. You might know that I no longer believe there ever was a novel respiratory virus called SARS-CoV-2, circulating & causing mass scale severe illnesses and deaths.
I think the excess deaths are mostly policy deaths. Withdrawal of healthcare, inappropriate treatments which injured or killed already vulnerable people, in astonishing numbers.
The diagnostic tests used for COVID-19 are so untrustworthy that assigning some deaths to c19 & others not is pure fiction.
I do think it’s entirely possible that whatever flu really is, it was manifest during the “Covid19 pandemic”. By odd happenstance, we’ve been invited to accept that for the first time in recorded history, flu vanished the year that c19 arrived!
I’ve learned quite a bit more about flu in recent years.
Excess winter deaths have long been assumed to be down to flu viruses. Surprisingly, that assumption doesn’t look to be correct. Mostly, if a person has “influenza-like illness”, no attempt is made to formalise such a diagnosis, partly because historically it makes no difference to their treatment.
I have a sneaking feeling that this therapeutic nihilism has long been incorrect & that the treatments now widely recognized as effective in c19 would save many lives in patients with ILI.
When an attempt has been made to firm up the diagnosis in a patient with ILI, the surprising result is that, in most cases, influenza isn’t found at all. Some people aren't persuaded that excess winter deaths associated with ILI have got anything to do with respiratory viruses.
That might make sense when we appreciate that for all the tens of millions of flu jabs, every year in U.K. alone, there’s no reduction in hospitalisation or death from ILI. They simply don’t work. They may reduce severity & duration of symptoms in younger patients with ILI, but they rarely die of it anyway.
I’m afraid we’ve been sold another fraud. Flu vaccines are useless. Totally ineffective & certainly is not justified. Kerching!
Some say that the main reason flu vaccines don’t save lives is that the very vulnerable are in that high risk cohort because their immune systems are senescent & unresponsive to new pathogens. Given that, why in the world would abyihe expect flu vaccines to work? The immune systems of the vulnerable won’t resound sufficiently.
You can be sure of this: senior public health figures like on SAGE knew this, as did pharma.
Now, looking back at the lies & utter carnage they’ve deliberately inflicted on the populations of numerous countries, here’s another certainty: Covid19 vaccines likewise COULD NEVER HAVE HELPED.
We locked down on lies & awaited vaccination on lies.
What was needed was to do nothing unusual, at all. Nothing would have happened because there never was a new respiratory health threat.
For those made sick by the policy of intense fear provoking propaganda, rational, early, multi drug treatments would have been the only intervention worth doing.
The entire event has been a fraud, one practised with the intention of so disrupting society & the economy that, soon, a great reset will be inserted.
Lies about pandemic respiratory viruses sit at the heart of this global fraud.
We need to be aware that poisonous, superfluous & ineffective injections were just one part of a series of faked, disruptive events.
Whether it’ll be food shortages, power outages, rationing, war etc I don’t know, but I expect it to culminate in mandatory digital ID & cashless CBDCs. We must halt this, bei can see no way to remove such a system once in place. By then, our lives will be subject to moment to moment permissioning via digital ID & cashless CBDCs.
Time to stand up and sing off a common hymn sheet. We’re not going to permit cash ri be withdrawn. There is no legitimate reason to do it, so when the authorities come up with thin excuses to justify it, you’ll definitely be listening to liars hell bent on deleting our freedoms permanently.
Why was London so different? What happened in London that made all those people die, whether of Covid or something else? I do remember the news screaming hysterically about all the bus drivers dying but I didn't believe it then and, seeing as how the buses are still running, I don't believe it now. It surely can't be simply that there are more hospitals in London which were quicker off the mark at throwing sick old people into care homes?
I'm not good with graphs but you seem to be saying London had much more excess death than anywhere else in the heady days of early pandemic hysteria and that it's not obvious why. What made Londoners more likely to pop off from/with covid? And, having killed them off, didn't London subsequently not have much going on afterwards?
I think Matt Hancock killed them. With fear, stupidity and midazolam.
Relatively more, yes. It started too soon to be exodus of sick from hospital to care homes. I hold on to the hypothesis that COVID was/is real and did genuinely cause excess death on its own. London is a major transport hub and much more densely populated than the rest of the country (indeed other major cities are included in entire regions so the data is diluted). This would account for the earlier and more severe impact of a novel respiratory pathogen? My conclusion remains (based on this analysis - https://metatron.substack.com/p/lockdowns-turned-an-average-flu-into) that COVID killed X but the govt was responsible for somewhere between 33% and 75% more deaths than would have occurred if COVID was simply left to run its natural course.
The other thing that strikes me is that, back at the start, there was no testing was there? So lots of the "Covid Death" could have been from other sorts of colds. I think London was over the mass deaths by the time the testing really took off. I certainly knew people who were adamant they knew people who had covid (when there were no tests and no doctors to be seen) and people were sure all the bus drivers were dying (apparently that was because they had to transport nurses around! My daughter travelled to work throughout on public transport - she said all the builders sat up one end of the tube and all the nurses in their uniforms sat down the other end!). I agree with you that the govt killed more people than covid and are still doing so.
Joel, I’ve been tossing this around. If it’s not too much to ask, what’s your (quick) opinion?
One of the interesting pickles with these deaths (stretching as far back as Dec 2020) is in relation specifically to those cases those coincide with deaths attributed to Covid-19 or ‘consequences due to Covid-19’. I have several hypothetical questions that I haven’t seen addressed much, but continues to be an unscratchable itch.
I’m sure others have considered this, but I have not seen this addressed widely.
I appreciate your eyeball-time!
Background (well-covered and discussed elsewhere):
- It has been demonstrated that case counts have been inflated
- Positive test results were used to misclassify deaths, ignoring impact of false positives/negatives and high PCR cycle thresholds
- Guidance in death codes were changed, increasing numbers of Covid deaths
- An array of financial incentives were in place to encourage attribution of death to Covid
- Covid-19 symptoms are very close to many other flu-like conditions
- Covid-19 diagnosis was sometimes based solely on PCR test results
Givens:
- Many of the worst effects of wild viral infection are attributed to the spike
- The jabs induce the body to produce the spike endogenously
- The primary means of testing for Covid has been PCR and antigen tests (at least partly) targeting the spike
Isn’t it altogether likely that individuals injected with the engineered mRNA produce spike in large quantities and will (or could) therefore test positive for Covid-19?
If the above is true, isn’t it likely that the jabs actually induce Covid or Covid-like disease?
If the foregoing is true, how many of the deaths attributed to Covid-19 (via positive test results) are in fact attributable to disease induced by the jabs?
The above would call into question all Covid cases following jab rollout in approx mid-December 2020 (in the US, timing varies for other nations).
1. I don't believe COVID post-vax was diagnosed simply on the detection of the spike protein. I asked this question to Clare Craig many months ago. She pointed me to some literature and reference data that showed this was unlikely but I don't have it to hand.
2. I do believe there was more COVID due to the vax because of the two-week window of compromised immunity.
I think there’s a third: does the jab trigger increase in Covid cases due to symptoms or other measures (not simply due to spike detection, but because the mRNA can induce Covid-like symptoms)
But the case count is updated as a result of PCR testing, not clinical diagnoses? What you suggest might apply for deaths, possibly even hospitalizations, but not cases.
Even the official national death coding guidance allowed for testing or symptom diagnosis. They played very fast and loose. I think this is part of the reason why the US stats look the way they do.
I’m not sure about the UK, but in the US, there were quite a few cases, especially early on, that were not PCR tested, they were diagnosed based on symptoms.
Almost all over the world, the excess deaths match perfectly with the lockdown inception and the Covid hospital/nursing home protocols. If one believes (like I do) that this virus was spreading since at least September 2019, why all the sudden excess deaths starting in late March 2020 and April 2020? Why didn't we have different spikes in deaths in different countries and states earlier? So much of what we've been told by officials doesn't make sense.
We literally sped up the curve by infecting all the at-risk at once so we could 'save hospital space', but in the 3 years since, we have actually lost hospital capacity (at least here in WA).
You answered your own question and it had nothing to do with "the virus spreading" in 2019.
None of these excess deaths were caused by "Covid" (SARSCoV-2) or any anomalous pathogen.
ALL of these excess deaths were caused by what you mentioned in your first sentence- the hospital protocols and the nursing home protocols.
If you have looked at the entirety of the database on excess mortality from 2019 to date it is crystal clear what happened.
That only 15 states were impacted in March/April 2020 and all 15 of those states enacted the same protocols at the same time clearly defines what happened. That the age stratification (beyond normal life expectancy) and baseline health measures (extremely poor) were the same further illustrates there was no viral pathogen of concern whatsoever- it all came down to policies- these people were killed.
You obviously know a lot more, but are unwilling to take it further, I wish you would continue, and tell the full story, we all need to know.
Go here:
https://healthfreedomdefense.org/covid-19-a-universe-of-questions-in-a-time-of-universal-deceit/
Many harmful activities ceased. Walking across busy intersections, driving, performing dangerous jobs, playing in playgrounds...
Basically, all the things that make life worth living carry a risk of killing us. I prefer to take those risks every day without government intervention, because...I want to look back on a life so well-lived it was worth a number of risks.
Good point. The lockdowns would have prevented some deaths, although they caused many more over enough time.
Indeed. Remembering that fear, isolation and loneliness are incredibly detrimental to the human nervous system. As is the divide and rule programme. So many questions unanswered and avoided and so many deaths and increase in chronic and co-morbid dis-ease as a result of this aspect of the lockdowns, masking and distancing.
Yes true. But these must have ceased in other cities too. I bet something was happening in the hospitals or aged care homes only in London, and it stopped in that April week. Someone will know.
I believe you are asking what stopped that was causing a weird spike in mortality--meaning something started that caused it in the first place....What could it be? I remember reading an article over a year ago about how the "spread" of covid around the world made no sense based on historical data of viruses. Why NY would have been ravaged while we were still completely unaffected in CA for several more months was always a question for me. Italy supposedly got hit horribly while its neighbors fared ok. London as well. Perhaps it was the govt in those places willing to play along and it was all perception? Otherwise, it sounds like something was directed in those places.
NY sped up their curve by infecting all the at-risk at once. And CA was dealing with covid at that time, too, as antibody testing showed. The thing is -- if you don't overreact to covid, you don't even notice it.
That makes sense--I thought there my be a more sinister theory being considered......
There was still plenty of sinister shit going down. Remember that in NYC spring 2020 you didn't even need a positive test to get marked as covid -- only covid symptoms. But even when tests were restricted to the sickest people WITH covid symptoms, only 25% or so were actually coming back positive.
I'll repeat that -- 75% of the people who were sick WITH COVID SYMPTOMS didn't actually have covid.
Yet the government waived all the normal rules and allowed them to count anybody with symptoms as a covid death -- even knowing that 3/4 of them probably don't even have covid to begin with.
https://www.westernjournal.com/nyc-adds-thousands-people-never-tested-positive-coronavirus-death-count/
On Tuesday, the city decided to add people who never tested positive but are presumed to have died from the virus, helping to raise the death toll by 3,700 in one day, according to The New York Times.
“Freddi Goldstein, press secretary to Mayor Bill de Blasio, said Tuesday that the data include at-home deaths of people suspected of having Covid-19, the disease caused by the coronavirus,” Bloomberg reported.
“That judgment is based on reported symptoms including cough, fever and shortness of breath,” the outlet added.
Didn't they throw covid patients into nursing homes instead of 'building a wall' around them?
Yes, but just in London at that time?
I'm not an expert in UK geography or population or anything, but I would imagine that's exactly where we would expect such a freakout. I imagine London as Britain's New York. Compared to the rest of the country, I would imagine that a massive number of 'at-risk' were in nursing homes in or around London.
This is due to the indiscriminate use of midazolam to murder elders to boost covid death numbers. There entire stockpile was used and not at the recommended dosages.
Midazolam?
Could be. DNRs too. Or, it could be as simple as societal support networks returning to normal. The Google mobility data shows a return to normal levels much more rapidly than the "measures" allowed.
could be ... but was midazolam only administered in London at that time?
Misattribution alone would contribute substantially to a fall off of non-covid deaths, I think.
Yes, I should have given this proper consideration. There are more than enough additional COVID deaths to account for the drop off in non-COVID excess, even though the disorderly pattern is not matched. I guess it is a combination of excess and non-excess deaths at a time when they really started over attributing COVID?
Yes, I think so. You might know that I no longer believe there ever was a novel respiratory virus called SARS-CoV-2, circulating & causing mass scale severe illnesses and deaths.
I think the excess deaths are mostly policy deaths. Withdrawal of healthcare, inappropriate treatments which injured or killed already vulnerable people, in astonishing numbers.
The diagnostic tests used for COVID-19 are so untrustworthy that assigning some deaths to c19 & others not is pure fiction.
I do think it’s entirely possible that whatever flu really is, it was manifest during the “Covid19 pandemic”. By odd happenstance, we’ve been invited to accept that for the first time in recorded history, flu vanished the year that c19 arrived!
I’ve learned quite a bit more about flu in recent years.
Excess winter deaths have long been assumed to be down to flu viruses. Surprisingly, that assumption doesn’t look to be correct. Mostly, if a person has “influenza-like illness”, no attempt is made to formalise such a diagnosis, partly because historically it makes no difference to their treatment.
I have a sneaking feeling that this therapeutic nihilism has long been incorrect & that the treatments now widely recognized as effective in c19 would save many lives in patients with ILI.
When an attempt has been made to firm up the diagnosis in a patient with ILI, the surprising result is that, in most cases, influenza isn’t found at all. Some people aren't persuaded that excess winter deaths associated with ILI have got anything to do with respiratory viruses.
That might make sense when we appreciate that for all the tens of millions of flu jabs, every year in U.K. alone, there’s no reduction in hospitalisation or death from ILI. They simply don’t work. They may reduce severity & duration of symptoms in younger patients with ILI, but they rarely die of it anyway.
I’m afraid we’ve been sold another fraud. Flu vaccines are useless. Totally ineffective & certainly is not justified. Kerching!
Some say that the main reason flu vaccines don’t save lives is that the very vulnerable are in that high risk cohort because their immune systems are senescent & unresponsive to new pathogens. Given that, why in the world would abyihe expect flu vaccines to work? The immune systems of the vulnerable won’t resound sufficiently.
You can be sure of this: senior public health figures like on SAGE knew this, as did pharma.
Now, looking back at the lies & utter carnage they’ve deliberately inflicted on the populations of numerous countries, here’s another certainty: Covid19 vaccines likewise COULD NEVER HAVE HELPED.
We locked down on lies & awaited vaccination on lies.
What was needed was to do nothing unusual, at all. Nothing would have happened because there never was a new respiratory health threat.
For those made sick by the policy of intense fear provoking propaganda, rational, early, multi drug treatments would have been the only intervention worth doing.
The entire event has been a fraud, one practised with the intention of so disrupting society & the economy that, soon, a great reset will be inserted.
Lies about pandemic respiratory viruses sit at the heart of this global fraud.
We need to be aware that poisonous, superfluous & ineffective injections were just one part of a series of faked, disruptive events.
Whether it’ll be food shortages, power outages, rationing, war etc I don’t know, but I expect it to culminate in mandatory digital ID & cashless CBDCs. We must halt this, bei can see no way to remove such a system once in place. By then, our lives will be subject to moment to moment permissioning via digital ID & cashless CBDCs.
Time to stand up and sing off a common hymn sheet. We’re not going to permit cash ri be withdrawn. There is no legitimate reason to do it, so when the authorities come up with thin excuses to justify it, you’ll definitely be listening to liars hell bent on deleting our freedoms permanently.
OK, what was being done in London until that April week 2020, that was not being done in the rest of the country?
Hey Joel.
They are not heroes. They led people off a cliff.
They don't get a medal now. 🥇
What I was saying the other day, basically.
Hope you are well.
https://www.bitchute.com/video/W0sfnHOGP09z/
Yeah lots of people have been lying and making preventable deaths look how they want to fit with their narrative.
Why was London so different? What happened in London that made all those people die, whether of Covid or something else? I do remember the news screaming hysterically about all the bus drivers dying but I didn't believe it then and, seeing as how the buses are still running, I don't believe it now. It surely can't be simply that there are more hospitals in London which were quicker off the mark at throwing sick old people into care homes?
I'm not good with graphs but you seem to be saying London had much more excess death than anywhere else in the heady days of early pandemic hysteria and that it's not obvious why. What made Londoners more likely to pop off from/with covid? And, having killed them off, didn't London subsequently not have much going on afterwards?
I think Matt Hancock killed them. With fear, stupidity and midazolam.
Relatively more, yes. It started too soon to be exodus of sick from hospital to care homes. I hold on to the hypothesis that COVID was/is real and did genuinely cause excess death on its own. London is a major transport hub and much more densely populated than the rest of the country (indeed other major cities are included in entire regions so the data is diluted). This would account for the earlier and more severe impact of a novel respiratory pathogen? My conclusion remains (based on this analysis - https://metatron.substack.com/p/lockdowns-turned-an-average-flu-into) that COVID killed X but the govt was responsible for somewhere between 33% and 75% more deaths than would have occurred if COVID was simply left to run its natural course.
The other thing that strikes me is that, back at the start, there was no testing was there? So lots of the "Covid Death" could have been from other sorts of colds. I think London was over the mass deaths by the time the testing really took off. I certainly knew people who were adamant they knew people who had covid (when there were no tests and no doctors to be seen) and people were sure all the bus drivers were dying (apparently that was because they had to transport nurses around! My daughter travelled to work throughout on public transport - she said all the builders sat up one end of the tube and all the nurses in their uniforms sat down the other end!). I agree with you that the govt killed more people than covid and are still doing so.
Joel, I’ve been tossing this around. If it’s not too much to ask, what’s your (quick) opinion?
One of the interesting pickles with these deaths (stretching as far back as Dec 2020) is in relation specifically to those cases those coincide with deaths attributed to Covid-19 or ‘consequences due to Covid-19’. I have several hypothetical questions that I haven’t seen addressed much, but continues to be an unscratchable itch.
I’m sure others have considered this, but I have not seen this addressed widely.
I appreciate your eyeball-time!
Background (well-covered and discussed elsewhere):
- It has been demonstrated that case counts have been inflated
- Positive test results were used to misclassify deaths, ignoring impact of false positives/negatives and high PCR cycle thresholds
- Guidance in death codes were changed, increasing numbers of Covid deaths
- An array of financial incentives were in place to encourage attribution of death to Covid
- Covid-19 symptoms are very close to many other flu-like conditions
- Covid-19 diagnosis was sometimes based solely on PCR test results
Givens:
- Many of the worst effects of wild viral infection are attributed to the spike
- The jabs induce the body to produce the spike endogenously
- The primary means of testing for Covid has been PCR and antigen tests (at least partly) targeting the spike
Isn’t it altogether likely that individuals injected with the engineered mRNA produce spike in large quantities and will (or could) therefore test positive for Covid-19?
If the above is true, isn’t it likely that the jabs actually induce Covid or Covid-like disease?
If the foregoing is true, how many of the deaths attributed to Covid-19 (via positive test results) are in fact attributable to disease induced by the jabs?
The above would call into question all Covid cases following jab rollout in approx mid-December 2020 (in the US, timing varies for other nations).
The PCR tests don't rely on spike detection alone.
Edited the original post with a few qualifiers in parentheses based on your comment.
In your experienced opinion looking at the data as much as you have, do you think this might be plausible or possible?
I really appreciate your opinion. Thank you!
You ask two different questions.
1. I don't believe COVID post-vax was diagnosed simply on the detection of the spike protein. I asked this question to Clare Craig many months ago. She pointed me to some literature and reference data that showed this was unlikely but I don't have it to hand.
2. I do believe there was more COVID due to the vax because of the two-week window of compromised immunity.
I think there’s a third: does the jab trigger increase in Covid cases due to symptoms or other measures (not simply due to spike detection, but because the mRNA can induce Covid-like symptoms)
But the case count is updated as a result of PCR testing, not clinical diagnoses? What you suggest might apply for deaths, possibly even hospitalizations, but not cases.
Even the official national death coding guidance allowed for testing or symptom diagnosis. They played very fast and loose. I think this is part of the reason why the US stats look the way they do.
I’m not sure about the UK, but in the US, there were quite a few cases, especially early on, that were not PCR tested, they were diagnosed based on symptoms.
Agreed. But they could ping the primers that do target the spike protein, no?
They could fake the whole test? Yeah, sure!
And thereby skew case numbers, hospitalizations, and attributed deaths?