Jul 10, 2022·edited Jul 10, 2022Liked by Joel Smalley
I've long thought that the first wave of excess deaths in April 2020 was largely manufactured by a combination of mistreatment of the disease (both in hospitals and care homes) and the effect of media manufactured fear/stress on vulnerable populations which has been shown to contribute to poor health outcomes, i.e. they were frightened half to death at the prospect of an impending plague. You only really saw this combination in the Western countries. Later waves were vaccine induced due to suppression of innate immunity in vulnerable populations who were given these shots in the middle of winter with the virus already circulating with AEs on top. IDK if this was all a complete shamble or on purpose.
need more qualitative data other than excess deaths pre- and post-vax, % vaxxed and GDP, to see what these countries have in common. Treatments used, which shots used/when, who is dying, lockdowns and other measures. Generally speaking, the lower % vaxxed are the countries with the higher post-vax excess deaths. What did these countries do (differently?) during the pre-vaxx period and why do they have a lower vaxx rate?
Seeing some confusion in the comments, but this basically all jives with what I’ve been seeing all along in this research. The jabs efficacy has been massively overstated by the establishment, but so has the immediate danger they present by the counterculture (long-term with annual or biannual doses has yet to be adjudicated). When you have something that’s killing maybe 300 per million, there’s going to be a lot of noise in the data and along with different population groups in different geographic areas with varying levels of infrastructure, we should expect to see some wildly different results. What continues to be clear is that the jabs do not present any measurable benefit. It’s also clear that there are many factors in health which confound any analysis.
To me, the jab campaign seems like it was simply a rush to produce a product that could pass limited testing, with efficacy perhaps being largely a placebo effect illusion while being “safe enough” to not raise many eyebrows (while still likely being orders of magnitude above previous vaccine safety profiles). The motivation was money, not to kill off the population (still confused why Pfizer, Moderna, et al would actively want to kill their customers, seems like a bad business decision). Perhaps there will be further impact down the road, especially with regards to fertility and birth rate and maybe that fits into a well-coordinated worldwide conspiracy, but the standard of proof required for such speculations is not there yet in my opinion. I think there’s a tendency to underestimate how complicated such plans would be to implement in reality, almost equal to the tendency to dismiss that potential entirely. I think a disservice is done when we gloss over that the jabs simply do not work, because that itself should end the campaign immediately. It should go without saying that you shouldn’t inject various chemicals and mRNA into your body if it serves no practical, positive purpose.
Jul 10, 2022·edited Jul 10, 2022Liked by Joel Smalley
The first wave of virus has missed East countries. It started for real in October and since then, it grow very quickly. In West three has been excess deaths since Max 2020.
I am not sure, how is that possible but probably someone start spreading virus in East later then in West.
Also, I have to add, that the lockdown was same in May 2020. In October then also collapsed hospital care due to overload and exhausting resource in first lockdown in May 2020.
The big crime is that good, detailed data wasn't collected and when numbers weren't working in the favor of the narrative some counties stopped showing data broken down by vaxed and unvaxed. Decisions should be driven by data so the lack of good data and the removal/altering of data (ie DMED) indicate no interest in that process.
I believe that you should also consider that the virus, initially at least, seemed to circulate more widely in different geographical areas at different times and evidence for this in my view is that the north east of Italy (Veneto, Friuli, and Trentino-Alto Adige regions) had a lesser first wave (spring 2020) than the rest of Northern Italy. At the time, this was attributed to more timely 'test and trace' but in hindsight I don't think that explanation holds water. It seems more likely to me that the North East is part of Eastern Europe from the point of view of the virus' geographical propensity to circulate, while being similar to the rest of Italy in terms of wealth, healthcare infrastructure, and demographics.
As a general point, I think a lot can be learnt from comparing regions within countries. To use another Italian example, for most of the so-called pandemic, Covid has appeared to be approx. twice as deadly in Lombardy (Milan) than in Lazio (Rome), based on official Covid deaths as a proportion of official Covid 'case' numbers. Big difference!!! But nobody ever points this out or tries to understand why... my own pet theory is higher levels of vit D in the sunnier climes of Central/Southern Italy...
Comparison of regions over time can also shed light on the role of the injections. It seems to me, just casting my eye over the breakdown of the Italian case numbers by region, that beginning in 2021 there is less geographic variation and that case numbers align more closely to population which might be viewed as a proxy for the number of jabbed in each region given the uniformly high uptake all over Italy...
Comparison of regions/areas also points to the role of natural immunity. Bergamo and Brescia (Lombardy, Italy), the hotspots par excellence of the first wave (spring 2020) were almost unique among the Italian provinces in having a smaller second wave (Autumn 2020).
If you have any interest in looking at the Italian figures more in detail, I would suggest www.statistichecoronavirus.it
Wait a sec- the charts START at -500 or lower. I can't quite figure out why, but that doesn't make sense. Wouldn't it HAVE to begin at zero, then move from there?
Here's my hypothesis: differential counting.
ie, clinical counts for outcomes count as vaxxed 14 days POST-vax and unvaxxed before. Obviously, this will push up the unvaxxed deaths artificially (and lower the vaxxed artificially). Effect is magnified by early vax immune suppression.
Meanwhile, societal level data for vaccination rates are counted as injections given from day 1.
This would likely give the distorted outcome above, if I'm not mistaken.
This is the analysis I have been waiting for. Overall vaccination rates have no correlation to change in excess deaths therefore the vaccinations have no value as a public health measure. NPI’s have been dropped almost everywhere and yet the excess deaths are not increasing. NPI’s, lockdowns, and vaccines were the only solutions offered by the public health authorities and they have not had any overall effect on the natural course of this virus. The long term social crisis is already evident, though. This is a self created disaster that could have been avoided by doing nothing.
Confounders to keep in mind - saline batches vs the bad batches may have been unevenly distributed per Craig Paardekooper's work and the whistleblower nurse in Slovenia (33% saline inj. for elites, 33% CoV inj, 33% with a slow release cancer death inj version).
Temporal association would be another way to look at the change in death rate - narrow the the international comparison, and within nation comparison to just the first two weeks to two months post jab rollouts and see if there is a pattern revealed. The increase in excess death rate may be inj related but, yes getting the vulnerable quickly, the rest may be in the slow release cancer groups or just amyloid/inflammation risks for slower chronic degeneration. *I am not really a number cruncher, but I really appreciate others who are, thanks!
In Australia, New Zealand and Taiwan which are highly “vaxed” and are island nations, all show an increase in excess mortality in 2022 coinciding with the 3rd jab. South Africa which has low rates of “vaccination” shows no excess mortality in 2022.
I live in Western Australia and can tell you that every other person has Omicron, but I know no one who has had a severe case. I do however know multiple people who have had severe reactions to the injections, even heart attacks. The unexplained sudden deaths is starting to get into the media. I think we know what is going on.
Also while some are sneaking Ivermectin into Australia and New Zealand, the government’s regulatory bodies ban it.
I'm horribly confused as this contradicts what I have been reading from other substackers. Do we need to back off our assertions that the jabs and lockdowns caused excess mortality?
I've long thought that the first wave of excess deaths in April 2020 was largely manufactured by a combination of mistreatment of the disease (both in hospitals and care homes) and the effect of media manufactured fear/stress on vulnerable populations which has been shown to contribute to poor health outcomes, i.e. they were frightened half to death at the prospect of an impending plague. You only really saw this combination in the Western countries. Later waves were vaccine induced due to suppression of innate immunity in vulnerable populations who were given these shots in the middle of winter with the virus already circulating with AEs on top. IDK if this was all a complete shamble or on purpose.
The issue is further clouded by which countries used Ivermectin from the beginning and if/when they started using it later.
As well, countries with low obesity and a lower elderly population also did better pre-vax.
Cambodia: over 65 years: 4.9% Obesity rate: 2.8 covid deaths: 178 / 1M (use ivermectin)
Bangladesh: over 65 years: 5.5% Obesity rate: 2.4 covid deaths: 174 / 1M (use ivermectin)
The same is true for many African nations.
USA: over 65 years: 16.3% Obesity rate: 36.5 covid deaths: 3116 / 1M
UK: over 65 years: 18.5% Obesity rate: 27.9 covid deaths: 2630 / 1M
Australia and NZ might give an insight. Both were mostly vaxxed before major covid outbreaks.
I believe that the cabal behind this are able to tamper with data though by strategic placement of their stooges at the top of data input positions.
I believe the only way to get to the bottom of this (in the absence of the data that ought to be available) is to run a counter-factual model like the Imperial one (https://brownstone.org/articles/model-misspecification-and-grossly-inflated-estimates-of-lives-saved/), with some realistic assumptions about cohort depletion, evolving natural immunity, evolving treatments, and the usual IFR etc
need more qualitative data other than excess deaths pre- and post-vax, % vaxxed and GDP, to see what these countries have in common. Treatments used, which shots used/when, who is dying, lockdowns and other measures. Generally speaking, the lower % vaxxed are the countries with the higher post-vax excess deaths. What did these countries do (differently?) during the pre-vaxx period and why do they have a lower vaxx rate?
Seeing some confusion in the comments, but this basically all jives with what I’ve been seeing all along in this research. The jabs efficacy has been massively overstated by the establishment, but so has the immediate danger they present by the counterculture (long-term with annual or biannual doses has yet to be adjudicated). When you have something that’s killing maybe 300 per million, there’s going to be a lot of noise in the data and along with different population groups in different geographic areas with varying levels of infrastructure, we should expect to see some wildly different results. What continues to be clear is that the jabs do not present any measurable benefit. It’s also clear that there are many factors in health which confound any analysis.
To me, the jab campaign seems like it was simply a rush to produce a product that could pass limited testing, with efficacy perhaps being largely a placebo effect illusion while being “safe enough” to not raise many eyebrows (while still likely being orders of magnitude above previous vaccine safety profiles). The motivation was money, not to kill off the population (still confused why Pfizer, Moderna, et al would actively want to kill their customers, seems like a bad business decision). Perhaps there will be further impact down the road, especially with regards to fertility and birth rate and maybe that fits into a well-coordinated worldwide conspiracy, but the standard of proof required for such speculations is not there yet in my opinion. I think there’s a tendency to underestimate how complicated such plans would be to implement in reality, almost equal to the tendency to dismiss that potential entirely. I think a disservice is done when we gloss over that the jabs simply do not work, because that itself should end the campaign immediately. It should go without saying that you shouldn’t inject various chemicals and mRNA into your body if it serves no practical, positive purpose.
The first wave of virus has missed East countries. It started for real in October and since then, it grow very quickly. In West three has been excess deaths since Max 2020.
I am not sure, how is that possible but probably someone start spreading virus in East later then in West.
Also, I have to add, that the lockdown was same in May 2020. In October then also collapsed hospital care due to overload and exhausting resource in first lockdown in May 2020.
The big crime is that good, detailed data wasn't collected and when numbers weren't working in the favor of the narrative some counties stopped showing data broken down by vaxed and unvaxed. Decisions should be driven by data so the lack of good data and the removal/altering of data (ie DMED) indicate no interest in that process.
Dear Joel,
I believe that you should also consider that the virus, initially at least, seemed to circulate more widely in different geographical areas at different times and evidence for this in my view is that the north east of Italy (Veneto, Friuli, and Trentino-Alto Adige regions) had a lesser first wave (spring 2020) than the rest of Northern Italy. At the time, this was attributed to more timely 'test and trace' but in hindsight I don't think that explanation holds water. It seems more likely to me that the North East is part of Eastern Europe from the point of view of the virus' geographical propensity to circulate, while being similar to the rest of Italy in terms of wealth, healthcare infrastructure, and demographics.
As a general point, I think a lot can be learnt from comparing regions within countries. To use another Italian example, for most of the so-called pandemic, Covid has appeared to be approx. twice as deadly in Lombardy (Milan) than in Lazio (Rome), based on official Covid deaths as a proportion of official Covid 'case' numbers. Big difference!!! But nobody ever points this out or tries to understand why... my own pet theory is higher levels of vit D in the sunnier climes of Central/Southern Italy...
Comparison of regions over time can also shed light on the role of the injections. It seems to me, just casting my eye over the breakdown of the Italian case numbers by region, that beginning in 2021 there is less geographic variation and that case numbers align more closely to population which might be viewed as a proxy for the number of jabbed in each region given the uniformly high uptake all over Italy...
Comparison of regions/areas also points to the role of natural immunity. Bergamo and Brescia (Lombardy, Italy), the hotspots par excellence of the first wave (spring 2020) were almost unique among the Italian provinces in having a smaller second wave (Autumn 2020).
If you have any interest in looking at the Italian figures more in detail, I would suggest www.statistichecoronavirus.it
In answer to your question 👉🏻 Yes there is: government tempered data
In Belgium if a doctor says anything about the vaccine, he is suspended by the Order of the Doctors
Wait a sec- the charts START at -500 or lower. I can't quite figure out why, but that doesn't make sense. Wouldn't it HAVE to begin at zero, then move from there?
Here's my hypothesis: differential counting.
ie, clinical counts for outcomes count as vaxxed 14 days POST-vax and unvaxxed before. Obviously, this will push up the unvaxxed deaths artificially (and lower the vaxxed artificially). Effect is magnified by early vax immune suppression.
Meanwhile, societal level data for vaccination rates are counted as injections given from day 1.
This would likely give the distorted outcome above, if I'm not mistaken.
This is the analysis I have been waiting for. Overall vaccination rates have no correlation to change in excess deaths therefore the vaccinations have no value as a public health measure. NPI’s have been dropped almost everywhere and yet the excess deaths are not increasing. NPI’s, lockdowns, and vaccines were the only solutions offered by the public health authorities and they have not had any overall effect on the natural course of this virus. The long term social crisis is already evident, though. This is a self created disaster that could have been avoided by doing nothing.
Confounders to keep in mind - saline batches vs the bad batches may have been unevenly distributed per Craig Paardekooper's work and the whistleblower nurse in Slovenia (33% saline inj. for elites, 33% CoV inj, 33% with a slow release cancer death inj version).
Temporal association would be another way to look at the change in death rate - narrow the the international comparison, and within nation comparison to just the first two weeks to two months post jab rollouts and see if there is a pattern revealed. The increase in excess death rate may be inj related but, yes getting the vulnerable quickly, the rest may be in the slow release cancer groups or just amyloid/inflammation risks for slower chronic degeneration. *I am not really a number cruncher, but I really appreciate others who are, thanks!
In Australia, New Zealand and Taiwan which are highly “vaxed” and are island nations, all show an increase in excess mortality in 2022 coinciding with the 3rd jab. South Africa which has low rates of “vaccination” shows no excess mortality in 2022.
I live in Western Australia and can tell you that every other person has Omicron, but I know no one who has had a severe case. I do however know multiple people who have had severe reactions to the injections, even heart attacks. The unexplained sudden deaths is starting to get into the media. I think we know what is going on.
Also while some are sneaking Ivermectin into Australia and New Zealand, the government’s regulatory bodies ban it.
So are you suggesting the Insurance company data indicating increased excess deaths in Western countries in 2021 are lies? Very confusing.
I'm horribly confused as this contradicts what I have been reading from other substackers. Do we need to back off our assertions that the jabs and lockdowns caused excess mortality?